Let's say that an investor has $100 to invest and an 8 year time frame. Furthermore, let's assume that the markets follow the usual trend of 3 up years for every 1 down year.
The market returns are:
Yr. 1 10%
Yr. 2 5%
Yr. 3 15%
Yr. 4 -25%
Yr. 5 15%
Yr. 6 5%
Yr. 7 15%
Yr. 8 -15%
Adding up the returns it appears that you have made 25%. However, the math works much differently.
Yr 1 | $110.00 | |||||
Yr 2 | $115.50 | |||||
Yr 3 | $132.83 | |||||
Yr 4 | $99.62 | |||||
Yr 5 | $114.56 | |||||
Yr 6 | $120.29 | |||||
Yr 7 | $138.33 | |||||
Yr 8 | $117.58 |
In actuality, because of the effect of losses on the portfolio, the value has gained only 17.58% over the 8 years. Furthermore, it does not matter in which year the losses occur - the results remain the same.
With active management, the advisor seeks to capture some portion of the gains while avoiding the losses. What would happen if an investment professional were able to capture 75%, 60%, 50% and 40% of the gains in the up markets while avoiding 75% of the down markets?
75% 60% 50% 40%
Yr 1 | 107.50 | 106.00 | 105.00 | 104.00 |
Yr 2 | 111.53 | 109.18 | 107.63 | 106.08 |
Yr 3 | 124.08 | 119.01 | 115.70 | 112.44 |
Yr 4 | 116.32 | 111.57 | 108.47 | 105.42 |
Yr 5 | 129.41 | 121.61 | 116.60 | 111.74 |
Yr 6 | 134.26 | 125.26 | 119.52 | 113.98 |
Yr 7 | 149.37 | 136.53 | 128.48 | 120.82 |
Yr 8 | 143.77 | 131.41 | 123.66 | 116.28 |
So to answer the question posed by this post - why active management? Why would an investor choose any other way? Over time the benefits speak for themselves and Bills Asset Management has a 20 year history of effectively employing active management techniques.
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